Previous year Polity questions (PYQ) Prelims Analysis

TRENDS AND STRATEGY OF POLITY:

If we examine the questions from the previous year, we can deduce that the section on Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, & Directive Principles of State Policy receives the most inquiries in Polity. Legislative, constitutional, and local government terms are the following crucial subjects. NCERTs have been consulted on the majority of fundamental Constitutional terms.

A candidate can also answer the questions if they fundamentally understand our political system and Constitution. NCERTs, M. Lakshmikanth, and regular newspaper reading are thus the most fundamental resources.

Introduction of UPSC

For the appointment of group “A” officers under various services, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the primary recruiting organization.

Two successive stages make up the competitive examination:

(i) the objective-type Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination to select candidates for the Main Examination; and

(ii) to choose candidates for the various Services and posts, the Civil Services (Main) Examination (Written and Interview) is.

The General Studies Paper-I and General Studies Paper-II (CSAT) are objective-type (MCQ-based) papers that are Part of the UPSC Preliminary Examination, which is the first phase of the exam. Paper II is qualifying and requires a minimum score of 33%. For each correct response in Paper I, two marks are given, and for each incorrect response, one-third of a mark, or 0.66 marks, is taken away. In contrast, Paper II awards 2.5 marks for each correct response and subtracts 0.833 marks for each incorrect response. Each paper in the exam lasts for two hours, and both papers are given on the same day.

It is critical to remember that this portion of the exam is only meant to serve as a screening test and that a candidate’s scores will not be considered when determining their final rank or level of service.

Because there are roughly twelve to thirteen times as many candidates who qualify for the Main Examination as there are openings to be filled each year, the chances of passing this stage are very skewed. Only those applicants who are officially deemed qualified for admission to the Main Examination for that year after passing the Preliminary Examination will be permitted to do so. Below are the previous years’ cutoff scores for the General category.

UPSC Prelims Cut-off Marks over the years (2015-2022)

Year	Cut-off Marks for General category	Percentage
2015	107.34/200 (GS1 based)	53.67%
2016	116/200 (GS 1 based)	58%
2017	105.34/200	52.67%
2018	98/200	49%
2019	98/200	49%
2020	92.51/200	46.61%
2021	87.54/200	43.77%
2022	95/200 (expected)	47.5%

The objective-type assessment format is followed during the preliminary exam. It includes inquiries from various subject areas, including politics, geography, history, and the economy. Below is a list of the Paper-I Preliminary Examination syllabus.

Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.
Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.
General issues on Environmental ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization.
General Science.
Current events of national and international importance.
History of India and Indian National Movement.
Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World.

In order to pass the exam, it is crucial to thoroughly prepare for each subject or topic listed on the syllabus. In order to get a sense of the range of questions asked and make predictions about the questions that might be asked the following year, it is crucial to complete the Paper-I questions from the previous year.

There are a significant number of inquiries from the political community. Following a thorough analysis of the UPSC papers from 2015 to 2022, the political questions have been compiled below.

YEAR-WISE QUESTIONS (2022-2015)

2022

Consider the following statements:

Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 only

Answer – B

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

3.Consider the following statements:

A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- B

Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer – B

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

8.With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – C

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer – A

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer – A

2021

Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates

(a) The Right to Equality

(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) The Concept of Welfare

Answer – B

What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer- B

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

(a) A Democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer – B

Constitutional government means

(a) a representative government of a nation with a federal structure

(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer – D

Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards.

(a) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.

(b) Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- D

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- B

At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.

(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer- D

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 28

(d) Article 44

Answer – A

Which one of the following in Indian Polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded

(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units

(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law

Answer- A

Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?

(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.

(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.

(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.

(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

Answer – A

With reference to the Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.
Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer – A

Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

(a) A committed judiciary

(b) Centralization of powers

(d) Separation of powers

Answer- D

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
The N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(d) Article 29

Answer – C

Consider the following statements:
In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer – B

2020

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(d) making cut motions

Answer- B

With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
A specified portion of each M.P.’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer- D

Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporated against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Equality

Answer – D

In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

(d) the conventional practice

Answer – B

Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Answer – D

A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(d) limited government

Answer – D

Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
Preamble
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- D

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens?
Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000
All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer – A

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer- B

Which Part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

Answer- A

Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Answer- D

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Answer – D

With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
They shall be enforceable by courts.
They shall not be enforceable by any court.
The principles laid down in this Part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer – D

Consider the following statements:
According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Consider the following statements:
The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer – C

In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?

(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

(b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand

(d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

Answer – A

2019

Consider the following statements:
The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – A

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

Answer – A

Consider the following statements:

(1) The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review

(2) Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Consider the following statements:
The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer – C

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 29

Answer- B

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

Answer – B

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
When a State Legislature does’ not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- C

Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer – C

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – D

In the context of Polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer – D

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken Part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer – C

2018

Consider the following statements:
No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
Limitation of powers
Equality before law
People’s responsibility to the Government
Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – C

Consider the following statements:
The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – A

Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

(a) if there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer- B

In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power was given to the

(a) Federal Legislature

(b) Governor General

(d) Provincial Governors

Answer- B

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
The value of the vote of M.P.s of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of M.P.s of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 Or 2

Answer – A

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Answer – C

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer – B

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
Charter Act of 1813
General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – D

Consider the following statements:
The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgment can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- A

Consider the following statements:

In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer – B

2017

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(d) Ideology

Answer – A

Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

legislative function.
executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
Adjournment motion
Question hour
Supplementary question

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- D

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer – A

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer – C

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer – A

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Answer – A

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(d) Liberty of belief

Answer – B

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer – D

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a) An arrangement for minimizing criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer – C

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor
Abolition of untouchability
Protection of the interests of minorities
Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – C

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – B

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(d) Legal Right

Answer – C

In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer – A

Consider the following statements :
The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer – D

Consider the following statements:
In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(d) any citizen of India.

Answer- C

2016

Consider the following statements:
The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- B

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- B

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passes by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(d) RajyaSabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Answer- D

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – B

Consider the following statements:
The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?
Undernourishment
Child stunting
Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer- C

Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign to

(a) rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood

(b) release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood

(d) release the bonded laborers from their bondage and rehabilitate them

Answer- C

With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements:
It is an organization of the European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- B

With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements:
Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- B

2015

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Answer – D

Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given below is correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Seventh Schedule

Answer – B

Consider the following statements :
The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- B

The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
People’s participation in development
Political accountability
Democratic decentralization
Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – C

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by

(a) a simple majority of member present and voting

(b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting

(d) absolute majority of the House

Answer – A

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

(a) Preamble of the Constitute

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Duties

Answer- D

Consider the following statements:
The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

Consider the following statements:
The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- D

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

(b) determine the boundaries between states

(d) protect the interests of all the border States

Answer- A

Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?

(a) The President of India

(b) The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Supreme Court of India

Answer- D

With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament
No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of India

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer- C

India is a member of which among the following?
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
Association of South-East Asian Nations
East Asia Summit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) India is a member of none of them

Answer- B

OUR COURSES

STUDY MATERIAL

USEFUL LINKS

KSG BRANCHES